Are the first order phase transitions always associated with a latent heat?


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6 months ago by
question:
https://physics.stackexchange.com/q/348917

my answer:
https://physics.stackexchange.com/a/384854

#The Art of Mean-Field Theory
I don't think the question is correct. Ferromagnetism with all spins aligned up to another Ferromagnetism with all spins aligned down is not a first order phase transition. Maybe, it is a second-order phase transition because there is a discontinuity in the magnetization.  
written 6 months ago by Claude Shannon  
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